From the book introduction to electrodynamics by David Griffiths , fourth edition, page no 279, there is an example to find the magnetic field of uniformly magnetized sphere. It said the magnetic field of the outside of the sphere would be same as that of a perfect dipole. I just don't get it. How the outside of a sphere can be assumed a dipole?

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    $\begingroup$ For the same reason a charged sphere has the same electric field as a point charge $\endgroup$ – Aaron Stevens Apr 3 at 14:24
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    $\begingroup$ It's never assumed to 'be' a dipole - it is rigorously shown to produce a purely dipolar field. $\endgroup$ – Emilio Pisanty Apr 3 at 16:47
  • $\begingroup$ thanks! that makes sense. $\endgroup$ – F.sharmin Apr 4 at 6:00

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