# Does quantization go from quantum $\to$ classical or the other way around?

I was thinking about the relationship of classical mechanics to quantum mechanics, as I just took my first course in quantum mechanics. My specific question was about quantization. For a harmonic oscillator, the way to "quantize" it is to take classical observables to operators, and using the Hamiltonian operator to solve for the wavefunction using Schrodinger's equation.

The problem I am having is I'm not clear on interpretation. Are we quantizing a classical harmonic oscillator to get an idea of what a quantum harmonic oscillator would behave like? Or, are we quantizing a classical harmonic oscillator to see how a classical harmonic oscillator works at microscopic/quantum scales?

• I am not sure I understand the difference between your two final questions. Also small note, the quantization you refer to comes from finding the (energy) eigenvalues of the Hamiltonian. You don't necessarily even have to "solve for the wavefunction (technically eigenfunctions)" Apr 2 '19 at 18:23