Does observation in quantum theories always imply interaction...?
Observation always implies interaction period, whether in quantum theory or any other theory. We cannot observe something unless that thing influences its surroundings in some way (scattering light, influencing the motion of nearby objects, etc). This is not specific to quantum theory.
As I see so far, observation is always done by means of affecting (!) the quantum system by some means...
In principle, it's the other way around: observation requires that the system of interest affects its surroundings (e.g., us) in some way. However, according to the action principle (from which conservation laws are derived), influences must go both ways — so in order for the thing being observed to influence its surroundings, its surroundings must also influence the thing being observed.
So why quantum physics so much emphasizes those "observation paradoxes" ...
While observation requires interaction in any physical theory, the role of observation in quantum theory has a new twist. In quantum theory, the interactions associated with observation (I mean the physical processes, whether or not any people are involved) result in a state that is typically a superposition of two or more terms that cannot be mixed with each other by the mathematical operators representing any feasible future measurements. In other words, we might as well end up with a state having only one of those terms, but (1) quantum theory can't predict which one, and (2) quantum theory can't even predict how often each one will occur when the experiment is repeated, except with the help of an additional postulate specifically dedicated to that role: Born's rule.$^{[1]}$ All of the various "observation paradoxes" (at least the legitimate ones) have their roots in this.
Becoming familiar with the CHSH inequality, and the fact that it is violated in the real world (as are other Bell inequalitites), is a good way to gain some appreciation for the non-trivial role of observation/measurement in nature, independently of the formalism of quantum theory.
it seems that physists... say that "observation slows-down transition of particles from higher energy level to lower energy layer".
Whether or not a given pattern of observation/measurement leads to the Zeno effect depends on several things. Observation is a physical process that (in principle) can be described in quantum theory just like any other physical process, and only after obtaining a state of the form described above can we safely project onto one of those terms with a frequency given by Born's rule. It is certainly not true that "any observation" would produce the same Zeno effect.
Footnotes about Born's rule:
$^{[1]}$ This is what I mean by "Born's rule": If $|\psi\rangle$ is the post-measurement state, which may be a superposition of two or more practically-unmixable terms, and if $P$ is the projection operator onto one of the practically-unmixable terms, then the relative frequency of empirically getting the result $P|\psi\rangle$ is $0\leq \langle\psi|P|\psi\rangle/\langle\psi|\psi\rangle\leq 1$.
The Mackey-Gleason theorem shows that Born's rule is essentially the unique rule that is compatible with the rest of quantum theory's structure. However, that theorem does not constitute a derivation of Born's rule from the rest of quantum theory's structure, for a simple reason: the Mackey-Gleason theorem is not sensitive to whether or not the observable in question has actually been measured — that is, to whether or not the state is a superposition of practically-unmixable terms that are eigenstates of the observable in question. That's why Born's rule is described as an "additional postulate specifically dedicated to that role."