Alongside the formula I've seen for Fermi-Dirac statistics: $$\frac{1}{e^{\beta(E-\mu)}+1}=f(E)$$ I often see the addendum that this is only true for non-interacting electrons. By that, I sort of assume it means that two electrons will not interact and occupy the same state (otherwise, if it's simply a question of the forces exerted by the electrons, then this could be surely taken into account with the chemical potential term - or is the issue in the assumption of a constant difference between energy states?)
Thanks for your time!