I was given the following operator $\hat{f}$ describing the interaction of two spin-$\frac12$ particles:
$$\hat{f}=a+b{\hat{\bf S}_1}\cdot{\hat{\bf S}_2}.$$
I was told that I can prove that $\hat{f}$ does commute with the total spin operators $\hat{S}^2$ and $\hat{S}_z$ because of the commutation relation $[\hat{S}^2,\hat{S}_z]=0$. Why is this true, and is it necessarily true regardless of the interaction between spins? From what I have learnt about addition of angular momentum, $[\hat{J}^2,\hat{J}_z]=0$ is true for non-interacting particles, but I am concerned about the spin interactions and possible coupling between the two particles.
Additionally, does ${\hat{\bf S}_1}$ necessarily commute with ${\hat{\bf S}_2}$ (for calculating $\hat{S}^2$ as a dot product)? I know that for non-interacting particles, the two particles have different spinor spaces, but once again I am uncertain for particles with interacting spins.