0
$\begingroup$

I am struggling with calculating the following integral on Sredinicki:

How did he get the second line of (10.6)? That is, how did he calculate the Fourier transform of Feynman propagator?

enter image description here

$\endgroup$
  • $\begingroup$ The Fourier transform of 1 is a $\delta$-function. $\endgroup$ – user178876 Feb 23 at 18:26

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service, privacy policy and cookie policy

Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.