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This problem:

enter image description here

I was able to solve it doing this:

enter image description here

But I think i have nowhere " exploited " the equivalence given above. How can this be used in this problem?

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  • $\begingroup$ i guess you did "exploit' that equivalence when you wrote the first line of your solution. $\endgroup$ – Carrick Feb 8 at 7:22
  • $\begingroup$ got it and put it in the answer $\endgroup$ – Starboy Feb 8 at 11:03
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The first relation has been derived by using the equivalence given above.

$$\frac {dQ}{dT} = j(\vec r)*4\pi r^2$$ Putting $$\frac {dT}{dr} =k* j(\vec r)$$ Since $$\frac {dV}{dr} = \vec E(\vec r)$$

We will get the same relation

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