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I am reading about Lagrange-Euler equation here.

When they prove that the formula is independent of the choice of coordinate, there is this reasoning, but I could not understand (probably my calculus background is not good):

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Maybe this is simple, but could someone please explain it?

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  • $\begingroup$ Minor comment to the post (v2): Please consider to mention explicitly author, title, etc. of link, so it is possible to reconstruct link in case of link rot. $\endgroup$ – Qmechanic Jan 30 at 16:52
  • $\begingroup$ Related: physics.stackexchange.com/q/375322/2451 $\endgroup$ – Qmechanic Jan 30 at 17:14

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