- 1 kg object vs 1000 kg object
- No friction applies in my example and the machine I am using is 100% efficient.
- Some machine using a fuel applies 1 N of force over 1 meter to each object which equates to 1 J of transferred energy.
- It takes 1.41 s for the 1 kg object to reach 1 meter. It takes about 45 s for the 1000 kg object to reach the same distance.
- Applying 1 N for 45 s surely must require more energy input to the machine than applying 1 N for only 1.41 s. Yet both objects acquire only 1 J (due to the kinetic energy giving more importance to velocity than mass) as the 1000 kg object gain only a fraction of the velocity that the 1 kg object does.
But seeing that 1 N of force throughout 45 s CLEARLY requires more joules than 1 N throughout 1.41 s, where does the rest of the joules go? I mean, energy is a conservative thing, right?
Where does my reasoning fail?