2
$\begingroup$

I am currently reading Griffiths book on quantum mechanics and I don't understand the derivation for the time derivative of the expectation value of the position.

The part am I stuck is after an integration by parts I have to calculate $x(\psi^*\dfrac{d\psi}{dx} - \psi\dfrac{d\psi^*}{dx})\big|^{\infty}_{-\infty}$.

I know that for the wave function to be normalized, it needs to go to zero as x approaches infinity. With that in mind, I calculate $\infty*0-(-\infty*0)$ which is supposed to equal $0$. What am I doing wrong?

$\endgroup$
  • $\begingroup$ maybe consider if $x\psi(x)$ or $x\psi’(x)$ need to go to $0$? $\endgroup$ – ZeroTheHero Jan 5 at 16:15
  • $\begingroup$ @ZeroTheHero The only thing I can think of is that in the book it says that $\psi$ goes to zero faster than $\dfrac{1}{\sqrt{x}}$. Does this mean that $\psi$ goes to zero faster than $x$ goes to infinity, therefore $x\psi$ goes to zero? $\endgroup$ – alexk745 Jan 5 at 16:49

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service, privacy policy and cookie policy

Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.