2
$\begingroup$

I have a question concerning Giulio Racah's derivation of the closed algebraic form of the Clebsch-Gordan coefficients in his Theory of complex spectra ii paper (Phys. Rev. v 62, pp 438 1942).

I have followed his proof until equation (10), and am lost at the transition from this equation to (11).

The gist seems to be that an equation for a general CG coefficient is used to calculate the case where m -> j and j-> j+1, but the resulting equation appears to have been much simplified, and I do not understand how.

Eq 10:

$$ \begin{align}(m_1m_2|jm)=\delta (m1+m2,m)A_j \left[ \frac{(j_1-m_1)!(j_2-m_2)!(j-m)!(j+m)!}{(j_1+m_1)!(j_2+m_2)!}\right]^{0.5}\sum_{t}(-1)^{j_1-m_1+t}\times \frac{(j_1+m_1+t)!(j+j_2-m_1-t)!}{t!(j-m-t)!(j_1-m_1-t)(j_2-j+m_1+t)!} \end{align} $$

$A_j$ is a constant to be determined at this point, and not of any real concern. I am not interested in re-iterating how this equation was reached, but I will leave a link to the original paper if you are curious (https://journals.aps.org/pr/abstract/10.1103/PhysRev.62.438).

What confuses me is the next bit. And I quote:

"In order to obtain from (a previous equation,4) the dependence of $A_j$ on j, we calculate at first from (1) the expression of $(m_1m_2|j+1j)$: owing to the $\delta$ factor and to the expression of $(j\vdots J_1\vdots j)$ (TAS $10^3 2a$), we have

(11)

$$ \begin{align} (m_1m_2|j+1 j)=\delta (m1+m2,j)(-1)^{j_1-m_1}A_{j+1} \left[ \frac{(j_1+m_1)!(j_2+m_2)!(2j+1)!}{(j_1-m_1)!(j_2-m_2)!}\right]^{0.5} \times 2(j+1)[m_1-j(j\vdots J_1\vdots j)] \end{align}" $$

The reference he makes to TAS $10^3 2a$ is an equation provided in Condon and Shortley's book Theory of atomic spectra, equation 2a in chapter 3, subchapter 10. It reads verbatim:

$$ \begin{align} (\gamma j_1j_2j\vdots J_1\vdots \gamma j_1j_2j)=\frac{j_1(j_1+1)-j_2(j_2+1)+j(j+1)}{2j(j+1)}\hbar \end{align} $$

We can ignore $\hbar$ because we are in units of $\hbar=1$. Likewise the $\gamma$ is a placeholder for any other observable quantum numbers in that state.

The procedure appears to be taking j to j+1, and m to j. The alternating sum then includes a term in the denominator of the form

$$ (j-m-t)! \rightarrow (j+1-j-t)! $$

For which only t = 0,1 yield meaningful results. Hence we compute these two terms and perform the multiplication.

My results for the sum look like: $$ \frac{(j_1+m_1)! (j+j_2-m_1)!}{(j_1-m_1) (j-m)! (-j+j_2+m_1)!}-\frac{(j_1+m_1+1)! (j+j_2-m_1-1)!}{(j_1-m_1-1) (j-m-1)! (-j+j_2+m_1+1)!} $$

Which upon making the substitutions $j \rightarrow j+1$ and $m \rightarrow j$ yields:

$$ \frac{(j_1+m_1)!(j+j_2-m_1+1)!}{(j_1-m_1)(-j+j_2+m_1-1)!}-\frac{(j_1+m_1+1)! (j+j_2-m_1)!}{(j_1-m_1-1)(-j+j_2+m_1)!} $$

The square root in (10) likewise becomes:

$$ \sqrt{\frac{(2 j+1)!(j_1-m_1)!(j_2-m_2)!}{(j_1+m_1)! (j_2+m_2)!}} $$

And hence the product (full-simplified in Mathematica) is :

$$ \left(\frac{j+j_2-m_1+1}{j_1-m_1}-\frac{j_1+m_1+1}{(j_1-m_1-1) (-j+j_2+m_1)}\right)\times\sqrt{\frac{(2 j+2)!(j_1-m_1)! (j_2-m_2)!}{(j_1+m_1)! (j_2+m_2)!}}\times \frac{(j_1+m_1+1)! (j+j_2-m_1+1)!}{(-j+j_2+m_1)!} $$

In short, it's a big mess. I have no idea how this hodge-podge is supposedly equivalent to

$$ \left[ \frac{(j_1+m_1)!(j_2+m_2)!(2j+1)!}{(j_1-m_1)!(j_2-m_2)!}\right]^{0.5} \times 2(j+1)[m_1-j\frac{j_1(j_1+1)-j_2(j_2+1)+j(j+1)}{2j(j+1)}] $$

Which, omitting the Kronecker function, $A_{j+1}$, and the (-1) term, is what we should have.

Regardless of whether my simplifications in Mathematica are correct (which I have a mind to think they aren't), Racah is asserting an equality of this kind, which I have not been able to show. If anyone has a familiarity with this source material, or a mastery of combinatorics and a leniency with notation, I would much appreciate the assistance.

The point of this particular exercise (calculating $<m1m2|j+1j>$ in this manner), is to determine the relationship between $A_j$ and $A_{j+1}$ such that we can fully determine the form of this equation and get the closed form of the CG . It is in fact, the only real boundary to my understanding the rest of his proof.

I am aware through my other posts and my readings that there are other proofs for the CG coefficients, but I would appreciate an answer to this question, and not a referral to others if at all possible.

All help is greatly appreciated!

Edit1: As @LonelyProf pointed out, we can take the terms $(j_1-m_1-1)$ and $(j_1-m_1)$ in the denominator of Eq 10 to be misprinted in that they are not factorials. If this is true, then we get the following:

$$ \sqrt{\frac{(2 j+1)!(j_1-m_1)!(j_2-m_2)!}{(j_1+m_1)! (j_2+m_2)!}}\times\frac{(j_1+m_1)!(j_2+m_2)!}{(j_1-m_1)! (j_2-m_2)!} = \sqrt{\frac{(2 j+1)!(j_1+m_1)!(j_2+m_2)!}{(j_1-m_1)! (j_2-m_2)!}} $$

$\endgroup$
4
  • $\begingroup$ It seems quite likely to me that the term $(j_1-m_1-t)$ in the denominator of eqn (10) of Racah's paper is a misprint, and should be $(j_1-m_1-t)!$. You seem to be dutifully carrying this term through your derivation, in the terms $(j_1-m_1)$, $(j_1-m_1-1)$, without the factorial sign. Have you tried working through it, but with these terms written as factorials? I think you are probably better set up to check this than me (otherwise I would have offered an answer!). $\endgroup$
    – user197851
    Dec 24, 2018 at 14:14
  • $\begingroup$ I did think that at some point. By my reckoning, if we take that as a misprint, we can expand the $(j_1-m_1-1)!$ term to $(j_1-m_1-1)(j_1-m_1)!$ and factor out all the factorials. This gives us the necessary terms to flip the arguments in the square root as Racah does, by $\sqrt{\frac{(2 j+1)!(j_1-m_1)!(j_2-m_2)!}{(j_1+m_1)! (j_2+m_2)!}}\times\frac{(j_1+m_1)!(j_2+m_2)!}{(j_1-m_1)! (j_2-m_2)!} = \sqrt{\frac{(2 j+1)!(j_1+m_1)!(j_2+m_2)!}{(j_1-m_1)! (j_2-m_2)!}}$ $\endgroup$ Dec 24, 2018 at 15:11
  • $\begingroup$ However, it leaves us with a term of the form $\sqrt{\frac{(2 j+1)!(j_1+m_1)!(j_2+m_2)!}{(j_1-m_1)! (j_2-m_2)!}}(1-\frac{(j_1+m_1+1)}{(j_2+m_2)(j_1-m_1-1)(j_2-m_2+1)})$ And now the form implies that $(1-\frac{(j_1+m_1+1)}{(j_2+m_2)(j_1-m_1-1)(j_2-m_2+1)})$ is equivalent to $2(j+1)[m_1-j\frac{j_1(j_1+1)-j_2(j_2+1)+j(j+1)}{2j(j+1)}]$, which does not appear to be true either. $\endgroup$ Dec 24, 2018 at 15:13
  • $\begingroup$ @LonelyProf, I will edit the question to reflect this part. Thank you! $\endgroup$ Dec 24, 2018 at 15:14

1 Answer 1

2
$\begingroup$

As I noted in my comment, it seems highly likely that eqn (10) in Racah's paper has a misprint: $(j_1-m_1-t)$ should be $(j_1-m_1-t)!$. As the OP notes in the edited question, this simplifies the expression, and allows various factorials to be taken inside the square root.

Having done this, I have verified that eqn (10) leads to eqn (11) in Racah's paper. Matching up the Kronecker delta, the $A_{j+1}$ coefficient, the sign term, and the square root, what remains is $$ -j^2 + (2m_1-1)j -j_1^2 +j_2^2 -j_1 +j_2 +2m_1 $$ which is equal to $2(j+1)[m_1-jJ_1]$ where $J_1$ is the matrix element defined in Condon and Shortley's book.


Following OP request:

Including the factor needed to flip four of the terms inside the square root, and taking out the sign factor, the sum over $t$ gives $$ \left[\frac{(j_1-m_1)!(j_2-m_2)!}{(j_1+m_1)!(j_2+m_2)!}\right] \left( \frac{(j_1+m_1)!(j+j_2-m_1+1)!}{(j_1-m_1)!(j_2-j-1+m_1)!}- \frac{(j_1+m_1+1)!(j+j_2-m_1)!}{(j_1-m_1-1)!(j_2-j+m_1)!} \right) $$ Rearranging, i.e. pushing factors $(j_1\pm m_1)$ from the left-hand term into the right-hand term and pulling factors $(j_2\pm j\mp m_1)$ in the reverse direction: $$ \left[\frac{(j_2-m_2)!(j+j_2-m_1)!}{(j_2+m_2)!(j_2-j+m_1)!}\right] \bigl( (j+j_2-m_1+1)(j_2-j+m_1) - (j_1-m_1)(j_1+m_1+1) \bigr) $$ The term in square brackets is unity, because of the condition $m_1+m_2=j$. Expanding the remaining terms gives the desired result.

$\endgroup$
4
  • $\begingroup$ Hey LonelyProf! Could you quickly point out how you got $-j^2 + (2m_1-1)j -j_1^2 +j_2^2 -j_1 +j_2 +2m_1$? I don't seem to arrive at the same expression, and it indeed does simplify as you say. If I can understand how you got to that expression, then that is indeed the answer! And thank you so much for answering my question! $\endgroup$ Dec 24, 2018 at 16:55
  • $\begingroup$ For clarification, when I proceed with the factorization of the factorials (do $\frac{(a+b)}{(a+b)!}=\frac{1}{(a+b-1)!}$ and the inverse) and the square root edit, I am left with an expression of the kind $(1-\frac{(j_1+m_1+1)(j_1-m_1)}{(j_2+m_2)(j_2-m_2+1)})$ for the remaining term. I do not see how this can be made equal to your $-j^2 + (2m_1-1)j -j_1^2 +j_2^2 -j_1 +j_2 +2m_1$ expression, even if I take $j\rightarrow j_1+j_2$ and group all terms under the same denominator. Explicitly, I am getting $\frac{j_2^2+m_2^2+j_2+m_2-j_1^2-m_1^2-j_1+m_1}{j_2^2-m_2^2+j_2+m_2}$ doing so. $\endgroup$ Dec 24, 2018 at 17:39
  • $\begingroup$ I have done this. The rearrangement step involves identifying factorials such as $(X+1)!=(X+1)\times X!$ and $(X-1)!=X!/X$. Hopefully that's clear now. $\endgroup$
    – user197851
    Dec 24, 2018 at 17:52
  • $\begingroup$ Thank you so much! For anyone who is reading this exchange later on, my fatal error was making the substitution $j\rightarrow j+1$ and $m\rightarrow j$ in all places Except the sum. This must be done first, and then you get exactly what @LonelyProf indicates. Thank you so much! $\endgroup$ Dec 24, 2018 at 18:23

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service and acknowledge that you have read and understand our privacy policy and code of conduct.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.