According to the Langevin model, we have, for the motion of Brownian particles, $$\frac{dv}{dt} = -M\gamma v + \zeta(t)$$ with $\zeta(t)$ the random force acting on the particle due to fluctuations.
Then I was told that the autocorrelation time $\tau_{c}$ of this fluctuating force is typically of the order of the time interval between two collisions of the fluid particles on the Brownian particle.
This statement puzzles me. I know these two terms $-M\gamma v$ and $\zeta(t)$ come from the collision (scattering) between the Brownian particles and the fluid particles But I wonder does the statement mean that the autocorrelation function of the fluctuating force $\langle\zeta(t)\zeta(t+\Delta t)\rangle$ have the mathematical relation that $$\langle\zeta(t)\zeta(t+\Delta t)\rangle \sim e^{-\gamma t} $$ and $\tau_{c} \sim 1/\gamma$?
If there is such a kind of relation, why? And if not, how to show
that the autocorrelation time $\tau_{c}$ of this fluctuating force is typically of the order of the time interval between two collisions of the fluid particles on the Brownian particle.