I know $F=ma$, but it's never really made sense to me. Here's an example:
Hypothetical scenario- I push a bowling ball ($m = 4\,\rm kg$) sitting on the floor with $5\,\rm N$ of force. (Assume no friction or air resistance.) Note that I do not continue to push the bowling ball. I only push it once, with the initial force of $5\,\rm N$. The bowling ball supposedly moves, that is, it now has a velocity. Let us assume that the ball moves with a constant velocity immediately (equal and opposite reaction because the $5\,\rm N$ of force was applied instantaneously (right?)). But if the ball is moving with a constant velocity, then its acceleration would be zero. Therefore, the force applied should've been zero.
Simple question: If force causes velocity, then why is force not related to velocity?
Reason for question: This has to do with applying a force to an object to make it go up. It's a King of the Hammer type configuration, where you use a hammer to smash one end of the lever, applying a force to a metal block to raise it into the air. How much force is required to raise a $500\,\rm g$ object $0.2\,\rm m$ into the air if it rests on a $0.1\,\rm m$ lever, the fulcrum being $0.04\,\rm m$ from the object?