It's useful to remember that a $(p,q)-$tensor can be thought of as a multilinear map which eats $p$ covectors and $q$ vectors and spits out a real number:
$$ T : \underbrace{V^* \times V^* \times \ldots \times V^*}_{p\text{ copies}} \times \underbrace{V \times V \times \ldots \times V}_{q\text{ copies}} \rightarrow \mathbb{R}$$
For example, a (0,2)-tensor eats two vectors and spits out a real number. A standard example of such a tensor is the metric $\bf{g}$. Because it is a multilinear map, we have that
$${\bf{g(X,Y)}}={\bf{g}}(X^i\hat e_i,Y^j \hat e_j) =X^i Y^j {\bf{g}}(\hat e_i,\hat e_j) \equiv X^i Y^j g_{ij}$$
where we define $g_{ij}$ to be what we get when we take the tensor ${\bf{g}}$ and plug the basis vector $\hat e_i$ into the first slot and the basis vector $\hat e_j$ into the second slot.
Similarly, consider the Riemann curvature tensor, which eats one covector $\boldsymbol \omega$ and three vectors $\bf{X,Y,Z}$ (making it of type (1,3)).
$${\bf{R}(\boldsymbol{\omega},X,Y,Z)} = {\bf{R}}(\omega_i\hat \epsilon^i,X^j\hat e_j, Y^k\hat e_k, Z^l \hat e_l) = \omega_i X^jY^kZ^l \cdot {\bf{R}}(\hat \epsilon^i,\hat e_j, \hat e_k, \hat e_l) \equiv \omega_i X^jY^kZ^l \cdot R^i_{\ \ jkl}$$
From this perspective, the answer to your question becomes clear. When we say that $R^{i}_{\ \ jkl}$ is antisymmetric in its last two indices, what we mean is that if we swap the basis vectors which we plug in to its last two slots, then the results differ by a minus sign.
It also means that saying that it's symmetric (or antisymmetric) in the first two indices doesn't make any sense, because the first slot is for covectors and the second slot is for vectors. You can't plug a vector into the first slot, and you can't plug a covector in the second slot, so the notion of swapping doesn't work.