I am reading a introduction to quantum mechanics right now. There is a part about the time evolution operator:
\begin{align*} i\hbar \partial_t \,\psi(\vec r, t) = \hat H(t)\, \psi(\vec r,t) \end{align*} is the time dependent Schrödinger-equation. If we assume that for each $\psi(\vec r, t_0)$ there is a unique solution $\psi(\vec r, t)$, then we can define an operator
$$U(t,t_0): \mathcal H \to \mathcal H,\, \psi(\vec r, t_0) \mapsto \psi(\vec r, t)$$
This operator is linear, since the Schrödinger equation is linear and it is unitary, since $\partial_t \langle\psi(\vec r, t)| \psi(\vec r, t)\rangle = 0$. I am totally happy with that. I can also accept, that $U(t,t_0) = e^{-i(t-t_0)\hat H/ \hbar}$, if $\hat H$ is time independent, where $e^{-i(t-t_0)\hat H/ \hbar}$ is defined over how it acts on the eigenvectors of $\hat H$.
But I have no idea, what the next sentence in my book means, and there is no good explanation. Is says there:
The differential equation, together with the initial condition ($U(t_0,t_0) = Id$) is equivalent to the integral equation: \begin{align*} U(t,t_0) = 1 - \frac{i}{\hbar } \int_{t_0}^t ds\, \hat H(s) U(s,t_0) \end{align*}
So my problem is basically, I don't understand this at all :/. How can I integrate operators, what does that even mean? Are there any good examples, where this integral makes sense? This is probably a really stupid question, but I am happy if someone could spare two minutes to help me.