Displacement current quantum mechanical interpretation? while there are quite many classical explanations of displacement current to make Maxwell's equations work, see e.g. here: Displacement current - how to think of it , it sounds just a little bit like an accounting trick.
Therefore, I was thinking about a more plausible explanation and came up with the following idea:
(1) The vacuum is quantum mechanically a seething sea of virtual particles and has defintely a electric polarizability. Examples for this are positron-electron generation by high electric fields by the Schwinger effect or by photon-photon collisions (Breit-Wheeler-effects) and as well as the Uehling effect (that has an impact on the Lamb-shift of the electron). 
(2) A changing electric field in time will start to polarize the virtual (charged) particles, even in vacuum, - very similar to polarization effects in dielectrics. This "motion" of virtual charges in turn consitutes an effective "virtual" current that should have the same value as the displacement current from Maxwell's equations. And also, as soon as the electric field stops to change with time, the virtual polarization will stop changing and hence no effective virtual current will flow.
Is my interpretation at least somewhat correct? And if not where did I go wrong?
Thanks a lot!
Or in other words (in case my interpretation is too wrong or too confusing):
How does the standard model describe the displacement current of Maxwell's equations? 
 A: The concept of displacement current in vacuum solved a specific problem with the EM law
$$
\nabla \times \mathbf B  = \mu_0 \mathbf j.
$$
The problem was, this equation cannot describe situations where electric current is such that concentration/removal of electric charges from fixed volume is occuring. In such situations, $\nabla \cdot \mathbf j$ is not zero, but the above equation requires it to be zero.
By adding displacement current, we have the equation
$$
\nabla \times \mathbf B  = \mu_0 \mathbf j + \mu_0\epsilon_0 \frac{\partial \mathbf E}{\partial t}
$$
where that deficiency is removed.
Any reinterpretation of displacement current as an actual electric current due to electric charge motion has to also explain how the original problem is to be resolved anew, or why it is not a problem.
In other words, what do we do with the first equation when in vacuum where there are no usual charges, only these hypothetical charges, and adding or removal of those charges from some fixed volume is occuring, so that
$$
\nabla \cdot (\epsilon_0 \frac{\partial \mathbf E}{\partial t})
$$
is non-zero?
