If the Graviton transmits the gravitational force to nuclei within atoms, and an object with mass gains energy by being accelerated (change velocity / change time), does that imply that $F = ma$ is caused by the interaction between Gravitons and nuclei of the object?
I've for a long time been in disdain over the concept of potential energy, and it would seem like the answer to this question would be yes if you only considered the $y$-axis considerations. If you lifted an object 10 meters, we would say it had gained some amount of potential energy. It seems like the reason behind that potential energy is the underlying fundamentals of what causes 'F = ma', where the gravitational field simply decelerates the object as it is lifted.
One problem with this however, is that 'F = ma' also applies to horizontal movement not affected by potential energy. So Gravitons would need to also affect nuclei even if they are accelerated across an unvarying gravitational field. I'm not sure how to justify this inconsistency which is why I'm curious. Any answers are appreciated.