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Are there any correlations between the probability of binomial distribution and the results of the two-slit experiment?

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    $\begingroup$ I suppose you're assuming that each peak of the interference pattern is a different $B(n,p)$ distribution? $\endgroup$
    – Kyle Kanos
    Commented Aug 30, 2018 at 14:07
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    $\begingroup$ Is there a particular significance of the dirac-delta tag here? Do you have something particular in mind? You could add some more to the question description; it's currently pretty nondescript. $\endgroup$
    – user191954
    Commented Aug 30, 2018 at 14:12
  • $\begingroup$ @Chair physics.stackexchange.com/tags/dirac-delta-distributions/… $\endgroup$
    – Kyle Kanos
    Commented Aug 30, 2018 at 15:04
  • $\begingroup$ @KyleKanos Strange. What's the rationale behind that synonym? I thought dirac delta distributions were a pretty specific and somewhat rare distribution, with an infinitely probability value for one particular input and zero for all others. That's fundamentally different from a binomial distribution. $\endgroup$
    – user191954
    Commented Aug 30, 2018 at 15:13
  • $\begingroup$ Apologies for the short question, what I've been and currently am thinking about is the relation between quantum and classical probability models. $\endgroup$ Commented Aug 30, 2018 at 15:28

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The binomial distribution is finite and discrete. The two-slit distribution is continuous and extends arbitrarily far. They both have a "bump" in the middle, that is about the limit of any correlation.

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