3
$\begingroup$

It is well known that the Feynman propagator can be expressed as a Green function of the Klein-Gordon operator:

$$G_F(x'-x)=i\int\frac{d^4p}{(2\pi)^4}\frac{e^{-ip\cdot(x'-x)}}{p^2-m^2+i\epsilon}$$

On the other hand, we can define the retarded and advanced propagators such as the former exists only if $$(t'-t)>0$$ and the second exists only if $$(t'-t)<0$$. For example, the retarded propagator has the expression:

$$G_R(x'-x)=i\int\frac{d^4p}{(2\pi)^4}\frac{e^{-ip\cdot(x'-x)}}{(p^0-E_p+i\delta)(p^0+E_p+i\delta)}$$

Or performing the temporal integral:

$$G_R(x'-x)=\theta(x'^{0}-x^0)\int\frac{d^3p}{(2\pi)^3}\frac{e^{-i\vec{p}\cdot(\vec{x'}-\vec{x})}}{2E_p}(e^{iE_p(x'^{0}-x^0)}-e^{-iE_p(x'^{0}-x^0)})$$

It is well known that the Feynman propagator is a Green function of the Klein-Gordon operator. However, how can we verify that the retarded propagator is a Green function of the Klein-Gordon operator?

From what I've read, the Feynman and the retarded propagator differ by a solution for the Klein-Gordon equation, but all the books and articles I've seen skip this demonstration.

$\endgroup$
0

1 Answer 1

3
$\begingroup$

\begin{equation} G_F(x'-x)=i\int\frac{d^4p}{(2\pi)^4}\frac{e^{-ip\cdot(x'-x)}}{p^2-m^2+i\epsilon} \end{equation}

we can in fact, do the one integral to get,

\begin{equation} G_F(x'-x)=\int\frac{d^3p}{(2\pi)^3}\frac{e^{-i\vec{p}\cdot(\vec{x'}-\vec{x})}}{2E_p}(-e^{iE_p(x'^{0}-x^0)}\theta(x'^{0}-x^0)-e^{-iE_p(x'^{0}-x^0)}\theta(x^0 - x'^{0})) \end{equation}

\begin{equation} G_R(x'-x)=\theta(x'^{0}-x^0)\int\frac{d^3p}{(2\pi)^3}\frac{e^{-i\vec{p}\cdot(\vec{x'}-\vec{x})}}{2E_p}(e^{iE_p(x'^{0}-x^0)}-e^{-iE_p(x'^{0}-x^0)}) \end{equation}

Then, $G_{F} - G_{R}$ is given by (also taking $x^{0} = 0$, $x^{\prime 0} = t$ )

\begin{equation} G_{F}(x') - G_{R}(x')= \int\frac{d^3p}{(2\pi)^3} \frac{e^{-i(\vec{p}\cdot\vec{x'} + E_{p}t)}}{2E_p} \end{equation}

which is indeed a solution of the homogeneous Klein Gordon equation i.e $ (\Box + m^{2})[G_{F}(x') - G_{R}(x')] = 0$

I might be little sloppy with i's and other things but this is the basic idea.

$\endgroup$
1
  • 1
    $\begingroup$ Thank you very much, I think I was misreading the question, but I now understand better the concepts. I redid the calculations and they do agree, and also verified something similar to practice with the advanced propagator. $\endgroup$
    – Charlie
    Commented Aug 26, 2018 at 15:38

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service and acknowledge you have read our privacy policy.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.