Consider a spinor field in $3$ dimensions, coupled to a $\mathrm U(1)$ gauge field. The spinor has charge $q\in\mathbb N$ spin $1/2$.
According to arXiv:1712.00020 (cf. the discussion below eq.2.48), the field $\psi$, when in presence of a monopole, has spin $0$ or $1$, as if the monopole were to change the statistics of the field. In this particular paper, the author is discussing the case $q=1$ and a single monopole, but one may consider the more general situation where both $q$ and the monopole number are arbitrary. I expect the statistics of $\psi$ to depend on $q$ because of the so-called spin/charge relation1.
This notion that a monopole may change the spin of a field seems to be ubiquitous in the condensed matter literature, but I haven't been able to find a clear and self-contained explanation. My question is:
What is the spin of a fermion of charge $q$ in the presence of a monopole background of monopole number $n$, and why?
1: "states of odd electric charge have half-integral spin and states of even electric charge have integral spin", from arXiv:1602.04251.