I have read these questions:
where it says:
A spinning charged particle constitutes a magnetic dipole. Its magnetic dipole moment μ is proportional to its spin angular momentum S: μ=γS the proportionality constant γ is called the gyromagnetic ratio.
where the comments say:
Because in a magnet, the atomic electrons are moving around their respective nuclei constituting a dipole and the dipoles are aligned in same direction to give net magnetic dipole moment.
So one is saying that magnetic dipole moment is caused by spin angular momentum, which is the intrinsic spin of an electron, the other one says that magnetic dipole is cause by electrons orbiting (orbital angular momentum) the nuclei (of course as per QM they are not classically orbiting).
So which one is right?
None of these questions says whether the magnetic dipole moment at QM level is caused by the intrinsic spin of electrons or the bound electrons' (OAM) orbiting (as per QM existing at a certain energy level) around the nuclei.
- Which one is right, is the magnetic dipole moment as per QM caused by the intrinsic spin of electrons or by electrons orbiting (OAM) the nuclei existing around the nuclei at a certain energy level?