I once heard in a ted talk that the elementary particles like electron and proton can exist in two different positions at the same time.
Now,I'm trying to understand a rotating rod from this perspective:
Consider a rod rotating about an axis perpendicular to the plane of the rod and passing through the centre. Increase the angular velocity of the rod to very high values (tending to infinity(hypothetical case)).
What we( a frame from ground) would observe or what conclusions can we draw:
we could say that the rotating rod looks pretty much like a disc(And I'm not sure if it would look like a stationary disc or rotating disc).
The above point can be understood easily,if we treat rod like a fast moving electron where it has tendency to exist at two positions.Now that the rod is in rotational motion (not something like the motion of an electron ,precisely.) it would have a tendency to exist at different positions (something like drawing two diameters of the circle traced by the rod, and saying that the rod exists at both the diameter)
As rod is moving with very high(almost infinity) angular velocity we could say that the rod exists at all the diameter of the circle.If you put your finger at any point on the circle, traced by the rod, you would feel the rod because (since rod has very high angular velocity) it exists at many different positions at the same time.
I think we can consider this rod (with high angular velocity) to be a solid object,precisely, a disc.
CASE I: I'm assuming that the disc(so formed from observers frame) to be rotating.
So,finally we have a rotating disc from observers frame.
Points we know about a rotating disc and a rotating rod:
- Moment of inertia of a rod about an axis through the centre and perpendicular to the plane=[M(L^2)]/12=P
- Moment of inertia of a disc about an axis through the centre and perpendicular to the plane=[M((L/2)^2)]/2=(3p)/2
How has the moment of inertia of the rod changed like that?
We see that the length of rod hasn't changed(Assuming the rod to be a ,strictly, rigid body) and since moment of inertia has increased, does this mean that mass has increased?
Does this mean that moment of inertia is dependent on angular velocity(if it is high enough).
CASE II:Now,I'm assuming that the disc is a stationary one:
In such a case moment of inertia of the disc(so formed from observers frame) would be zero.
How's this possible?
How can a body lose moment of inertia due to very high(angular velocity)?
IS MY UNDERSTANDING AND CORRELATION CORRECT ?
If wrong please explain where I have misunderstood the concepts.