This question already has an answer here:
what I mean is that,if you have two objects(one hollow and other solid):
Lets say, a solid sphere and a hollow sphere and if you calculate moment of inertia of the two of them, you would find that moment of inertia is more in the hollow one than in the solid one.
So, is this concept i.e moment of inertia of a hollow object is more than its corresponding solid one always true?
Given:mass of both the bodies are equal
NOTE:THIS ISN'T A DUPLICATE QUESTION,ALL THE PREVIOUS QUESTION EXPLAIN IT FOR A PARTICULAR BODY ,BUT I'M QUESTIONING ITS VALIDITY FOR EVERYTHING(UNIVERSAL OR NOT)