0
$\begingroup$

This is most likely a question with a very simple answer but well, on the paper "Particle-Vortex Duality from 3d Bosonization" by Karch and Tong, on page 11 it is claimed that the first three terms on (3.2) match those of (2.16). However, the BF term seems to have an inverted sign. It does not seem to be a matter of ordering of the fields since the first field that shows up on the coupling is always the one being integrated over...

So my question is: how do these two expressions match each other if they seem to have different signs on one term?

$\endgroup$
  • $\begingroup$ I think you misundersood what they are talking about in that paper. $\endgroup$ – The Last Knight of Silk Road Nov 28 '18 at 17:31

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service, privacy policy and cookie policy

Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.