# At a node the wave function [closed]

At a node the wave function

a. Passes through 0

b. Becomes 0

Which of the following is right? And most importantly why?

See i have seen the graphs and i can see their that it passes through 0 but why cant it become 0?

Also why cant we explain existence of node by assuming particle nature of atom?

## closed as off-topic by AccidentalFourierTransform, Cosmas Zachos, CR Drost, sammy gerbil, stafusaJun 25 '18 at 13:25

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• What about : at a node the wave function is zero. – my2cts Jun 24 '18 at 15:13
• Not clear what you are asking. What is the difference between "passes through zero" and "becomes zero"? Where have you read that we cannot explain the existence of a node by assuming the particle nature of the atom? A node is a property of a wave, not a particle. See J Murray's comment below. – sammy gerbil Jun 24 '18 at 21:40
• There is a difference which I told in another comment. Yes definitely node is a property of wave but if we were assuming Bohr's model, then how can we discard the idea of node in an atom, that was my question. Anyway it's clear now. – RS2000 Jul 22 '18 at 11:12