I came across this simple proof:
We show that Hermitian operators have real eigenvalues. The definition of a Hermitian operator is
\begin{equation} \langle \phi_i | \hat A | \phi \rangle = \langle \phi_i | \hat A | \phi \rangle^* \tag{1} \end{equation}
Then if $|\psi\rangle$ is an eigenvector of $\hat A$, we have
$$ \hat A|\psi\rangle = \lambda|\psi\rangle \tag{2}$$
and therefore
$$ \langle\psi|\hat A|\psi\rangle = \lambda . \tag{3}$$
If $\hat A$ is hermitian, we my apply (1) so that
$$\langle\psi|\hat A|\psi\rangle = \langle\psi|\hat A|\psi\rangle^*$$ $$\lambda = \lambda^*.$$
What I am not getting, is the step from (2) to (3). Seems to me that would be true only if $\psi$ is normed ($\langle\psi|\psi\rangle = \int \psi^*\psi \text d \tau = 1$).
Is it true in general that eigenvectors/eigenfunctions of operators are normed and orthogonal?