The way I have developed intuition about optics suggests that humans can only see objects if two rays of light that originally emanated from the same point reach the eye in a way such that when extended backward from the eye, can meet at a point.

That doesn't seem to happen in the case of a hyperopic person using lenses though. Heres how. enter image description here

The eye is positioned to the immediate right of these lenses and when the red lines emanating from the tip of the object are extended backward, they never seem to meet.

This, however, does not happen for objects placed between focus and the vertex. enter image description here

This suggests that hyperopic corrective glasses should only be worn while viewing nearby objects and should not be worn at all times. A few search results though suggested otherwise and hence led to confusion.

This is a link to the answer which had lead to my confusion: https://www.quora.com/Can-I-wear-my-prescription-glasses-for-farsightedness-all-the-time

The point of view described in the above link might sound like a neat idea but is not logically rigorous.

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    $\begingroup$ I'm voting to close this question as off-topic, since it asks about wearing practices. $\endgroup$ – Qmechanic Jun 13 '18 at 15:51
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    $\begingroup$ @Qmechanic Why? Isn't this an on-topic question about optics? $\endgroup$ – Tanner Swett Jun 13 '18 at 16:03
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    $\begingroup$ @TannerSwett: no, it's about whether one should wear glasses during certain times or all the time. While optics is physics, the question asked is health-care related (optometry or biology). $\endgroup$ – Kyle Kanos Jun 13 '18 at 16:31
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    $\begingroup$ Like most persons of advancing years I suffer from hypermetropia. It's called 'presbyopia'. To see close objects clearly I need to boost the convergence provided by my eyes, and I do this by putting converging lenses in front of them ('reading glasses'). When I'm not looking at close objects, I take the glasses off, because my eyes can provide the smaller amount of convergence needed quite happily! This is not advice. $\endgroup$ – Philip Wood Jun 13 '18 at 17:13
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    $\begingroup$ If someone's vision when corrected by glasses is equivalent to the vision of a person who does not need glasses, then, if they wear glasses all the time, they will see as well as someone who does not need glasses. So your question is, in fact whether a far-sighted person's vision is actually completely corrected by glasses: I believe this is then a question about accomodation, not about far-sightedness. In particular people whose eyes accomodate well but are far-sighted (usually young people) can indeed wear glasses all the time. $\endgroup$ – tfb Jun 14 '18 at 11:39

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