The way I have developed intuition about optics suggests that humans can only see objects if two rays of light that originally emanated from the same point reach the eye in a way such that when extended backward from the eye, can meet at a point.
The eye is positioned to the immediate right of these lenses and when the red lines emanating from the tip of the object are extended backward, they never seem to meet.
This suggests that hyperopic corrective glasses should only be worn while viewing nearby objects and should not be worn at all times. A few search results though suggested otherwise and hence led to confusion.
This is a link to the answer which had lead to my confusion: https://www.quora.com/Can-I-wear-my-prescription-glasses-for-farsightedness-all-the-time
The point of view described in the above link might sound like a neat idea but is not logically rigorous.