I know $e^-e^+\rightarrow\gamma$ is an example of a non physical process in QED because it violates four-momentum conservation. For that reason, the Feynman amplitude $\mathcal{M}$ is never written or calculated explicitly in the bibliography, so I don't really know if it is assumed that it is zero or if it doesn't make sense calculating $\mathcal{M}$ for such a process.
I've tried to perform such a calculation for $e^-e^+\rightarrow\gamma$ following the Feynman rules and got $$i \mathcal{M} = (-ie)u^s(p)\gamma^{\mu} \bar{v}^{s'}(p')\epsilon_{\mu}^{\lambda^*}(k)$$ where $u^s(p)$ represents the incoming electron, $\bar{v}^{s'}(p')$ the incoming positron and $\epsilon_{\mu}^{\lambda^*}(k)$ the outgoing photon.
I doesn't look like $\mathcal{M} = 0$ here. Should it not vanish? It seems to me that it should be zero for a process that can never occur.
I've used an example to clarify my question, but I would also like to know if the amplitudes for all other non-physical processes should be zero or not and why.