When I studied interferences, I saw that only coherent sources could interfere.
In physics, two wave sources are perfectly coherent if they have a constant phase difference and the same frequency, and the same waveform. Coherence is an ideal property of waves that enables stationary (i.e. temporally and spatially constant) interference. https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Coherence_(physics)
What we saw is basically that light was emitted in wave packets. Each wave packet is coherent with itself but not with the others.
I cannot figure out what is the interpretation of such packets at a quantum scale. Light is supposed to be emitted when excited atoms emit photons. What makes some photons coherent and other not?
For example, let us take a double slit experiment with electrons or atoms. What does it mean for electrons or atoms to be emitted by coherent sources? More specifically, what condition their wave function should satisfy? What would be a wave packet of electrons? Is there a link with the idea that in order to have interferences, we must not be able to tell by which slit the electron went through?
Thanks to your answers, I almost understood how a single photon could be coherent with itself : its wave function $\Psi$ is spread in space and time. For example, an atom that emits a photon has a certain probability to emit the photon at each time. At a given time, there is a certain probability that the photon is located around the atom and then it propagates. Then we split $\Psi$ into $\Psi_1 + \Psi_2$ which correspond to the atom going through one arm (or one slit) rather than through the other. Finally, on the screen, the probability to get observe the photon in $\mathbf{x}$ at time $t$ is $$|\Psi_1(\mathbf{x}, t) + \Psi_2(\mathbf{x}, t)|^2$$ and the interference term in non-zero if the two wave functions overlap.
However, it seems that independent sources can also interfere (G. Magyar and L. Mandel, Nature (London) 198, 255 (1963), I couldn't find the original, but it was reprinted in Concepts of Quantum Optics by P. L. Knight, L. Allen). In another article (Interference of Independent Photon Beams, R.L. Pfleegor, L. Mandel, Phys. Rev., 159, July 1967), they reproduce the result and explain in the discussion that this mustn't be taken as independent photons interfering but is linked to the detection process.
I might not know enough of quantum optics to understand this properly. It seems that I'll have to wait before I can understand. Nevertheless, would it be possible to create two independent sources of particles like electrons or atoms interfere ?