11
$\begingroup$

A very similar question is asked here, but I'm still confused :(

From Bell, in a hidden variable model, $A = A(\lambda, a)=\pm 1$ is the observed spin of the first particle around axis $a$, and $B = B(\lambda, b)=\pm 1$ is the same for the 2nd particle around $b$. The CHSH proof is then $E(AB)+E(A'B)+E(AB')-E(A'B')=E(AB+A'B+AB'-A'B')\leq 2$, since $|AB+A'B+AB'-A'B'|=|A(B+B')+A'(B-B')|\leq 2$.

But we could do the same trick if $A$ depends on $b$ too, so where is locality used? The link says that $E(AB)+E(A'B)+E(AB')-E(A'B')=E(AB+A'B+AB'-A'B')$ is unjustified, but aren't expectations always linear?

$\endgroup$
2
  • $\begingroup$ The hidden variable is a property of each particle, thus it's local to that particle. Bell's doesn't apply to a non-local hidden variable. $\endgroup$
    – PM 2Ring
    Commented May 22, 2018 at 4:41
  • 1
    $\begingroup$ $E(A,B)=\int A(a,\lambda) B(,b,\lambda) \rho (\lambda) d\lambda$. I don't see to what locality corresponds to the in maths. $\endgroup$
    – reeeeee
    Commented May 22, 2018 at 10:29

1 Answer 1

12
+100
$\begingroup$

For better clarity I will here be using the notation $A_0$ and $A_1$, instead of $A$ and $A'$, to denote the outcomes for different measurement setups, and the same with $B$. This means that $A_x$ is the random variable describing the possible measurement outcomes on Alice's side when the measurement choice is $x$, and similarly for $B_y$ describing Bob's outcomes when his measurement choice is $y$. We will label the two possible measurement choices with $x,y\in\{0,1\}$, and the possible measurement outcomes with $\pm1$, meaning $A_x,B_y\in\{-1,1\}$.

The expectation values are defined as $$ E(A_xB_y)\equiv\int d\lambda\, q(\lambda)\, E_\lambda(A_xB_y) =\int d\lambda\, q(\lambda)\sum_{ab} ab \,p(ab|xy,\lambda), $$ where $q(\lambda)$ is the probability of the hidden variable having the value $\lambda$, and $p(ab|xy,\lambda)$ is the conditional probability of getting the outcomes $a$ and $b$ given the measurement settings $x$ and $y$ and hidden variable $\lambda$.

The locality assumption (plus assumption of independence of measurement choices) is embedded in the following factorization for $p$: $$p(ab|xy,\lambda)=p(a|x,\lambda)p(b|y,\lambda).\tag A$$

This relation is needed to have $E_\lambda(A_x B_y)=E_\lambda(A_x)E_\lambda(B_y)$, so that \begin{aligned} E(A_0B_0)+E(A_0B_1) &=\int d\lambda \,q(\lambda)[E_\lambda(A_0)E_\lambda(B_0)+E_\lambda(A_0)E_\lambda(B_1)] \\ &= \int d\lambda \,q(\lambda)E_\lambda(A_0)[E_\lambda(B_0)+E_\lambda(B_1)], \end{aligned} where $$E_\lambda(A_x)\equiv\sum_a a \,p(a|x,\lambda),\quad E_\lambda(B_y)\equiv\sum_b b \,p(b|y,\lambda).$$ Without locality assumption, the above would not hold.

An analogous argument leads to $$E_\lambda(A_1B_0)-E_\lambda(A_1B_1) = E_\lambda(A_1)[E_\lambda(B_0)-E_\lambda(B_1)].$$

The conclusion is now straightforward from here. Define $$S_\lambda\equiv E_\lambda(A_0B_0)+E_\lambda(A_0B_1)+E_\lambda(A_1B_0)-E_\lambda(A_1B_1).$$ Then, using the above equalities, we have $$S_\lambda= E_\lambda(A_0)[E_\lambda(B_0)+E_\lambda(B_1)] + E_\lambda(A_1)[E_\lambda(B_0)-E_\lambda(B_1)].$$ The triangle inequality, together with the fact that, by definition of the numbers we are attaching to the possible outputs, we have $0\le \lvert E_\lambda(A_i)\rvert \le 1$, now gives $$\lvert S_\lambda\rvert\le \lvert E_\lambda(B_0)+E_\lambda(B_1)\rvert + \lvert E_\lambda(B_0) - E_\lambda(B_1)\rvert = 2\max(|E_\lambda(B_0)| , |E_\lambda(B_1)|).$$

The full $S$ is now defined by averaging $S_\lambda$ over the hidden variable $\lambda$, and because a convex mixture of numbers in $[-2,2]$ remains in $[-2,2]$, we reach the conclusion: $$\lvert S\rvert\le 2.$$

But we could do the same trick if A depends on b too, so where is locality used?

No, you could not.

If the outcome of $A$ directly depends on $B$, then (A) does not hold, thus the probabilities do not factorize ($E(AB)\neq E(A)E(B)$), thus $E(A_0B_0)+E(A_0B_1)\neq E(A_0(B_0+B_1))$, thus the CHSH argument cannot be applied.

Aren't expectations always linear?

Indeed they are. The locality assumption is needed not for the linearity but to factorize the probabilities/expectation values, in order to put them into the form $E_\lambda(A_0)[E_\lambda(B_0)+E_\lambda(B_1)]$, at which point the CHSH argument applies.

$\endgroup$
3
  • $\begingroup$ related: physics.stackexchange.com/q/114218/58382 $\endgroup$
    – glS
    Commented Jun 27, 2021 at 13:05
  • $\begingroup$ Just a minor correction, I think: OP has $A = \pm 1$, but this answer nominally uses $0 \leq E_{\lambda}(A) \leq 1$. I think what is actually needed is $0 \leq |E_{\lambda}(A)| \leq 1$, which is of course true by hypothesis, if I followed the proof correctly. But please correct me if I missed something $\endgroup$
    – twoform
    Commented Apr 22 at 22:34
  • $\begingroup$ @twoform indeed, fixed, thanks $\endgroup$
    – glS
    Commented Apr 23 at 7:15

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service and acknowledge you have read our privacy policy.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.