1
$\begingroup$

Consider a hamiltonian of a simple classical pendulum

$$H=p^2+\omega q^2.$$

How can quantities such as $\langle p^2 \rangle$ or $\langle q^2\rangle$ can be calculated using the microcanonical measure?

$\endgroup$

1 Answer 1

2
$\begingroup$

As far as I understand this average values are $$ <p^2> = A^{-1} \iint_{-\infty}^\infty p^2\delta(p^2+\omega^2q^2-E)\ dpdq, $$ and similar for $<q^2>$, where $E$ is fixed energy of a pendulum and $$ A = \iint_{-\infty}^\infty \delta(p^2+\omega^2q^2-E)\ dpdq $$ One can calculate integrals with the $\delta$-function directly or one can use the symmetry of the problem. If $x = \omega q$, then due to the $\delta$-function we have $$ <p^2> + <x^2> = E, $$ and due to the symmetry we have $<p^2> = <x^2>$. Hence $<p^2> = E/2$.

P.S. I think there should be $\omega^2$ in the Hamiltonian, not $\omega$.

Update. About $<p^2> + <x^2> = E$ equality. Probability density function for the microcanonical distribution has the form $$ \rho(q,p) = A^{-1} \delta(H(q,p)-E). $$ Here $A^{-1}$ is a normalization constant. Because of main $\delta$-function property the only possible states $q,p$ of the pendulum are those, for which $H(q,p)=E$. After change of the variable from $q$ to $x$ we have $p^2 + x^2 = E$ for any possible state. Average of a constant equals to the same constant. Hence $<p^2 + x^2> = E$. Average of a sum is a sum of averages and we get what we need.

About $<p^2> = <x^2>$ equality. It is obvious after change of variables $p \leftrightarrow x$ in the integral.

$\endgroup$
6
  • $\begingroup$ Yes, it should be, since $H=\dots + \frac12 m \omega^2 x^2$, and so for $m=2$, you have $\omega^2 x^2$. $\endgroup$
    – JamalS
    Commented May 20, 2018 at 10:30
  • $\begingroup$ @JamalS, this is a matter of definition. $\endgroup$
    – jarhead
    Commented May 20, 2018 at 15:34
  • $\begingroup$ @Gec, can you elaborate more on the symmetry? I'll accept your answer, but it is not clear to me why due to the delta function you obtain $<p^2>+<q^2>=E$ $\endgroup$
    – jarhead
    Commented May 20, 2018 at 15:57
  • $\begingroup$ @jarhead, I updated my answer. $\endgroup$
    – Gec
    Commented May 20, 2018 at 16:36
  • 1
    $\begingroup$ @jarhead, I think you are doing something wrong. I get the same result when solving integrals. $\endgroup$
    – Gec
    Commented May 21, 2018 at 10:14

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service and acknowledge you have read our privacy policy.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.