Ferromagnetism corresponds to the parallel alignment of spins, and it is said that for ferromagnetic alignment one requires the spin part of the wavefunction must be in one of the three symmetric triplet states: $|\uparrow\uparrow\rangle$, $\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}(|\uparrow\downarrow\rangle+|\downarrow\uparrow\rangle)$ or $|\downarrow\downarrow\rangle$ with $m=1,0,-1$ respectively. I understand that the first and the third states, the spins are aligned which is not the case for the second state. Hence, I have the following question.
Question How does the second member of the triplet i.e., the state $\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}(|\uparrow\downarrow\rangle+|\downarrow\uparrow\rangle)$ with $s=1, m=0$ lead to ferromagnetic alignment while the singlet state $\frac{1}{\sqrt{2}}(|\uparrow\downarrow\rangle-|\downarrow\uparrow\rangle)$ with $s=0, m=0$ lead to antiferromagnetic alignment? In both states, I find that the spins are oppostitely aligned, and therefore, must lead to anti-ferromagnetic order. Where am I wrong?