If we come from the physics side, the hamiltonian formalism usually is introduced via generalized coordinates (which are just a collection of numbers stuffed into a vector ($\vec{q}$), and the lagrangian formalism. Legendre transform of the Lagrangian yields the hamiltonian, and so on.
In this formulation, the canonical equations of motion \begin{align} \dot{\vec{q}} = \frac{\partial H}{\partial p} \\ \dot{\vec{p}} = -\frac{\partial H}{\partial q} \end{align} follow from an action principle. The action \begin{align} \int dt~\left( \dot{\vec{q}} \cdot\vec{p} - H(\vec{q}, \vec{p}, t)\right) \end{align} is stationary with respect to variations with $\vec{q}(t_2)$ and $\vec{q}(t_1)$ fixed. Now I've read up more mathematical formulations, that employ the concept of manifolds. In some, the phase space is introduced as cotant space over the configuration space, which means that $\vec{q}$ now is a set of coordinates for a point in the configuration space Q (which is a manifold), $\dot{\vec{q}}$ is an element of the tangential space $T_{\vec{q}}Q$, and $\vec{p}$ is an element of the dual space to that tangent space. Up to here it's no problem to write down the above mentioned action in the same manner. $\dot{\vec{q}}\vec{p}$ now isn't anymore a scalar product, but it's instead the application of $\vec{p}$ to $\dot{\vec{q}}$, which maps to a real number (and which perfectly makes sense).
My question is now: Can we keep up with the action formulation for cases in which the phase space (possibly) isn't a cotangent space anymore? For example, if it's just an even-dimensional space, equipped with a symplectic form, can we somehow still write down an action, that makes sense from a mathematical point of view?
Or is my question not necessary, because every notion of phase space that appears in physics makes use of the phase space as a cotangent space?