The answer according to solution manual: $F_A=566N F_B=283N$
I am not asking for you to solve this exercise, this is not a place for homework, I know. I need help how to think so I can solve this myself.
Clearly there will be one force downwards $mg=50\cdot9.8=490N$ and that will cause the ball to want to roll towards B. There will therefore be one force straight to left (the opposite force from B). Then I imagine that the force from A will go from A through the center of the ball and that this force times sin60=B more clearly $(F_A\cdot sin60=B$) but what will the force of A become and why? I saw someone dividing mg with cos30 to get A but why is this?