The answer may seem obvious: 'because they're less massive'. But what's the correct physics relationship here?
If two identical engines were fitted in a bike (say, 200kg) and a car (1000kg), will they:
a) put out identical energy over a given time. So, when converted to kinetic energy via $E_k=\frac{1}{2}mv^2$ the bike's velocity after a given period will be faster than the car's by a factor of the square root of five because $v=\sqrt{ 2E_k/m}$.
Or, will the two identical engines b) put out identical instantaneous force? So, when converted to acceleration via $F=ma$, the bike will accelerate five times faster $a=F/m$.
There's also a wind resistance element, so we could assume the bike has one quarter of the font-facing surface area (ignoring any streamlining design). I assume this is part of the equation that would govern top speed. (Would love a pointer to how to calculate this given known torque (and thus force at tyre) and drag.)
Some aspects of this question relate to engineering. Eg, the tendency for bike engines to be over-engineered cf similarly-priced car engines. There may also be an effect of the bike's power being applied to the wheel/the ground more directly than the car's. But I'm really asking about the physics of the situation.
Assume same engine in each vehicle. Assume bike is a fifth the mass of the car. Will acceleration of the bike be five times that of the car, or square root of five?
I'm kinda interested in difference in braking ability too, assuming half the contact on the road and one fifth of the momentum at equivalent velocity.