Let me begin by noting that for a surface with charge density $\sigma$, we know the component of the electric field perpendicular to the surface is discontinuous. This relation is given as $$\mathbf{E_{above}-E_{below}}=\frac{\sigma}{\epsilon_0}\mathbf{\hat{n}},$$ or equivalently in terms of the potential $$\nabla V_{above}-\nabla V_{below}=-\frac{\sigma}{\epsilon_0}\mathbf{\hat{n}}$$ $$\tag{*}\frac{\partial V_{above}}{\partial n}-\frac{\partial V_{below}}{\partial n}=-\frac{\sigma}{\epsilon_0},$$ where for the last step we can dot both sides of the first equation by $\mathbf{\hat{n}}$ and define the normal derivative of $V$.
Now, in Griffiths Electrodynamics book, he suggests that the surface charge density of a plate is given as $$\tag{#}\sigma=-\epsilon_0 \frac{\partial V}{\partial n}.$$ I'm a bit confused because results $(*)$ and $(\#)$ don't look the same to me. Could someone clarify how these two relations are connected, because I think they must be, but can't see it in.
Here is the context of the problem where this shows up. You have a conducting plane that is grounded and resides at the $xy$-plane. There is a positive point charge $q$ a distance $d \mathbf{\hat{z}}$ above this plane. You apply the method of images, replacing this problem with one where there is a mirror charge and no conductor. You obtain the potential V, which is also the potential for the original problem for $z \geq 0$. Next, you want to find $\sigma$ of the plane. I think that since there is an electric field both above and below the plane, we should use Eq. $(*)$. But, Griffiths uses Eq. $(\#)$ and evaluates the derivative at $z=0$, noting that here $\mathbf{\hat{n}}=\mathbf{\hat{z}}$ so the derivative is taken with respect to z. This confuses me because if the derivative exists as we take the limit $z \rightarrow0$, then that means $dV/dz$ evaluated from limit $z\rightarrow0^+$ is equal to that taken with limit $z\rightarrow0^-$. But this contradicts the discontinuity claim in Eq. $(*)$.