I've been wondering about this for a while now. I want to know whether or not we should take into account the induced magnetic field in a coil when computing the flux through that coil.
I've read multiple answers that weren't really satisfying (at least for me), so I give a simple example :
Let's consider a one-loop coil with small self inductance (or L << R) but still R is not that big so we still can have a good conductor. Now imagine this one-loop coil is placed on a table (x-y plane), facing a uniforme magnetic field (z axis), now let's say we increase this unifrome field linearly with time so what woulld happened is (What I think would happened) :
The increase of the magntic field B will induce a magnetic field b (in this case the fields are opposing each other) so : the increasing B => an increasing b => reducing the increase in B => a reduction in the increase of b => B increases. And we are back from we started.
Ofcourse the inductance is not zero and there is a delay between the two fields. But if we neglect that delay can we say that this naive explanation means that the incident field won't be perturbed by the induced one.