# Fourier Transforms and bell frequency example

I am stuck on the following question:

I can do the part a rather easily, but the part b i am stuck on.

For now I have shown that I(Wo) = 1/(2piK^2) and 1% of this is 1/(200PiK^2)

I have also deduced that (W-Wo)^2/(Wo)^2 = (0.5/100)^2 because of the statement that the intensity of the frequency more than 0.5% away from Wo is reduced to below 1% of Intensity at Wo. However I am unsure how to proceed any help would be appreciated.

• The equations become much easier to read, search and edit when MathJax is used. I normally propose an edit to posts to typeset equations in MathJax, but since you seem to not be a newcomer, you should really do it yourself. – Styg Feb 18 '18 at 19:10

You just need to check $\frac{I(1.005*\omega_0)}{I(\omega_0)}<0.01$. The statement will then be true for any $\omega$ seperated by 0.5% or more.