-1
$\begingroup$

This question already has an answer here:

In the derivation of F=ma, when we reach the point F=kma, we take k=1. Why can't we take 'k' as some other value?

$\endgroup$

marked as duplicate by John Rennie, stafusa, Chris, valerio, Qmechanic Feb 3 '18 at 10:37

This question has been asked before and already has an answer. If those answers do not fully address your question, please ask a new question.

0
$\begingroup$

We make use of S.I. units. The statement $F=ma$ defines the newton (N) as the force required to accelerate a mass of $1kg$ by $1ms^{-2}$ in the direction of the force. This means that $k=1$.

$\endgroup$

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.