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$$ i\hbar \frac{dU_I(t, t_i)}{dt} = \hat{V}_I(t)\hat{U}_I(t,t_i) \tag{10.32} $$ The solutions of this equation, with the initial condition $\hat{U}_I(t_i,t_i)$, are given by the integral equation $$ \hat{U}_I(t,t_i) = 1 - \frac{i}{\hbar}\int_{t_i}^t\hat{V}_I(t')\hat{U}_I(t',t_i)dt' \tag{10.33} $$

In the derivation of Dyson Series please explain why in equation (10.33) $t$ is changed to $t'$ without integrating.

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    $\begingroup$ Because $t$ is the upper limit of the integral. $\endgroup$
    – Nemo
    Commented Jan 27, 2018 at 13:54
  • $\begingroup$ Pardon me but that doesn't make it clear to me. Please explain in more detail. $\endgroup$ Commented Jan 27, 2018 at 13:58

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This is not particular to this problem in QFT but just a mathematical manipulation. The integration is of the form $$\frac{d}{dt} U(t) = f(t)\,\,\,\,\text{with solution}\,\,\,U(t) = U(t_i) + \int_{t_i}^t f(t') dt'$$

Remember the integration variable is dummy - you can have $t$ as the variable and e.g $t’$ as the upper limit but then the $\text{l.h.s}$ will be $U(t’,t_i)$. You can then replace $t’$ with $t$ but this is all done automatically by relabelling the dummy integration variable from the start.

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  • $\begingroup$ Thanks CAF for clearing my doubt. I really appreciate it. $\endgroup$ Commented Jan 27, 2018 at 15:55
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    $\begingroup$ No worries, if you feel your question has been answered please accept this answer to close the issue. $\endgroup$
    – CAF
    Commented Jan 27, 2018 at 16:26

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