Expanding the freecharlys answer.
When changing from one inertial frame to another don't forget that electric and magnetic fields are two manifestation of one electromagnetic force.
Let us have two frames, $S$ where charge is moving and $S'$ where it is at rest. Then for $S'$ we can wright down
$$ \mathbf{E_\parallel}' = \mathbf{E_\parallel} \\
\mathbf{B_\parallel}' = \mathbf{B_\parallel} \\
\mathbf{E_\bot}' = \gamma \left( \mathbf{E}_\bot + \mathbf{v} \times \mathbf{B} \right) \\
\mathbf{B_\bot}' = \gamma \left( \mathbf{B}_\bot - \frac{1}{c^2} \mathbf{v} \times \mathbf{E} \right)
$$
where $\gamma \ \overset{\underset{\mathrm{def}}{}}{=} \ \frac{1}{\sqrt{1 - v^2/c^2}}$, see Wiki for more details.
Important part now is $\mathbf{E_\bot}' = \gamma \left( \mathbf{E}_\bot + \mathbf{v} \times \mathbf{B} \right)$, even if $\mathbf{E} = 0$ in the frame $S$, in the frame $S'$ electric field would not be zero. Assuming velocity of the charge $v<<c$, in your case $\mathbf{E}' = \mathbf{v}\times \mathbf{B}$.
So if $\mathbf{v} \perp \mathbf{B}$, the force in $S'$ will be defined as follows:
$$F' = qE = qvB = F
$$
Force would not change, though the electromagnetic field in frame $S'$ will. And it will have an electric component now, which will act on the charge at rest.