This question already has an answer here:
If an electron taken alone by oscillating produce an electromagnetic wave. Can a collection of atoms, i.e., in my case a stone produce an electromagnetic wave/ electromagnetic radiation if we oscillate it?
Any stone is composed of atoms. Any atoms is composed of electrons , protons and neutrons, so according to classical theory that any accelerating charge produces an electromagnetic wave then a stone can also produce one as it is oscillating the electric field produced by itself? Wouldn't it? Please help
How it is different from the existing question:
The previous question defines itself as electrically neutral. Here, I don't fully understand the idea behind the term electrically neutral. I agree in fact that the AMOUNT of positive charge is equal to the negative charge. But I don't understand how it stops from oscillating the electric field that itself produced.
The point is if this is true we should have this effect when Faraday experimented with a stone instead of a bar magnet or if I'm missing something in my understanding, please help.