(I would certainly appreciate comments by those people considering this question to be too unclear. Or am I to guess what is unclear? The How to Ask section was of no help in this regard.)
This was given as an exercise in one of the beginner physics courses at our university this year
A particle starts at rest at the top of a frictionless sphere of radius $R$ and slides down on the sphere under the force of gravity. How far below its starting point does it get before flying off the sphere?
It can also be found in (and was propably taken from) the Feynman Lectures. The solution given to the students was the same one that can be found on the Fey. Lec. Website (I will refer to it as the FL solution), and you can find similar solutions on Phys.SE, since questions about similar or identical exercises have been asked before.
I have some questions about the exercise, the solution and beyond
In the exercise: What is meant by "flying off the sphere"?
In the FL solution: Why can the particle not fly off before $N=0$ ?
What would the trajectory of the particle look like with the constraint $\boldsymbol{r}^2(t) \geq R^2$ and some starting velocity $\neq 0$ ?
Are there some good books dealing with nonholonomic constraints (mainly inequalities) in the lagrangian formalism?
Background on the questions
About the first question: In my eyes "flying off the sphere at time $t_0$" has (at least) 2 very natural possible meanings; The right side showing how I would formulate it mathematically.
- $(M1)$ "loosing contact at $t_0$" $ ~:\Leftrightarrow ~~t_0 = \inf\{ ~t \mid \boldsymbol{r}(t)^2 > R^2 \} $
(yes; the above means it could touch the sphere again after $t_0$)
- $(M2)$ "never being on the sphere again after $t_0$" $ ~:\Leftrightarrow ~~ t_0 = \inf\{ ~t \mid \forall s > t : ~ \boldsymbol{r}(s)^2 > R^2 \} $
But which one is meant in the exercise? Or is it meant in a completely different way?
And as a follow-up question: If either $M1$ or $M2$ is meant; Where does the FL solution show - since it does not calculate $\boldsymbol{r}(t)$ - that one of them is fullfilled?
About the second question: The FL solution treats the problem in the following way: Aussume circle path up to $h$ where $N=0$; calculate $h$. So they have to assume $$ N > 0 \Rightarrow \text{circle path op to }h \Leftrightarrow \text{no flying off before }h $$ But this does not seem obvious to me, especially if "flying off" means either $M1$ or $M2$.
About the third question: The FL solution assumes the particle to be in touch with the sphere at all times before reaching some height $h$. This is partly due to choosing the starting velocity to be 0 (or at least very very small) . But how does the trajectory look for different starting velocities, and assuming the constraint $\boldsymbol{r}^2(t) \geq R^2$ for all $t$? It can not be the same as before. For Example: Giving the particle a big starting velocity will send it off the sphere into free fall; no sliding at all.
About the fourth question: Normally I would try and derive the equations of motion by using the lagrange formalism. But in the case of the $\boldsymbol{r}^2(t) \geq R^2$ constrain, I don't know how to do this. Nonholonomic contrains were never dealt with (at most mentioned) in any lectures I went to or books I have looked into.