The commutator of two free scalar fields at two spacetime points $x$ and $y$ given by $$[\phi(x),\phi(y)]=\int\frac{d^3p}{(2\pi)^32E_{\textbf{p}}}[e^{-ip\cdot (x-y)}-e^{ip\cdot (x-y)}]$$ is Lorentz-invariant. We can therefore compute this quantity in any inertial frame we like.
If it is zero in one frame it remains zero in every other frame. If the interval is spacelike i.e., $(x-y)^2<0$, one can perform a Lorentz transformation to go to a frame when the events can be made simultaneous i.e., $x^0=y^0$. Therefore, \begin{equation}[\phi(x),\phi(y)]=\int\frac{d^3\textbf{p}}{(2\pi)^32E_\textbf{p}}\sin(\textbf{p}\cdot (\textbf{x}-\textbf{y}))=0\end{equation} since the integrand is an odd function of $\textbf{p}$.
Now, this should be true in all other inertial frames connected by Lorentz transformation. Since a Lorentz transformation cannot keep a spacelike interval spacelike, we have shown that this vanishes identically for space-like separation $(x-y)^2<0$ i.e. outside the light cone.
Will the commutator $[\phi(x),\phi(y)]$ be zero if the ``mass-squared parameter" i.e. $m^2$ of the term $\frac{1}{2}m^2\phi^2$ of the Lagrangian is negative? If not, which part of this proof fails and why?
I expect this to violate causality i.e., the above commutator not to remain zero even for $(x-y)^20$ because a particle of negative mass corresponds to a propagation velocity faster than the speed of light in vacuum.