I see no reason for it, and no mention of it anywhere else.
Indeed, if you look at the list of solar eclipses in the 21$^\mathrm{st}$ century, you'll see also a column containing the coordinates on the Earth's surface where the eclipse peak will be.
I took that column and put it in a text editor. I then counted the number of occurrences for $^\circ N$ and $^\circ S$, and I found
$$
\matrix{
^\circ N:& \mathrm{occurred\ 114\ times} \\
^\circ S:& \mathrm{occurred\ 110\ times}
}
$$
So the statement on slashdot seems to be false (at least for the 21$^{\mathrm{st}}$ century).
You could repeat the process, taking only the total eclipses:
$$
\matrix{
^\circ N:& \mathrm{occurred\ 33\ times} \\
^\circ S:& \mathrm{occurred\ 35\ times}
}
$$
from which we conclude the same.
You can repeat the same for the 19$^{\mathrm{th}}$, 20$^{\mathrm{th}}$, 22$^{\mathrm{nd}}$ and 23$^{\mathrm{rd}}$ centuries, with the same outcome: they occur just as frequently on the Northern as on the Southern hemisphere.
I realize this is not really a proof of any kind, but frankly, the burden of proof is not on my side here :)