I don't do physics, but a sound-related question came up in a project. I've googled extensively but I still can't get a hang of the basics. The following are two related questions.
Assume the source vibrates at a frequency $f_1$ and amplitude $A_1$ and produces a longitudinal wave with a wavelength of $\lambda_1$.
Now let's assume that we change the amplitude of vibration to the greater value of $A_2$, but keep the same frequency $f_1$. Now according to theory, the speed of sound will not change. However, doesn't vibrating surface cover greater distance in the same amount of time, compared to when it oscillates with lower amplitude $A_1$? Which, I would assume, should mean that the speed of wave propagation is higher?
Now let's assume that we keep the same amplitude $A_1$, but change the frequency of the source to the greater value of $f_2$.
Similarly, vibrating surface covers greater distance in the same amount of time compared to when it oscillates with at a lower frequency $f_1$. Is that correct? Similarly, shouldn't the speed of wave propagation be faster?