For harmonic oscillators the prefactor for the semiclassical propagator is $Fe^{iS}$ where $$F=\sqrt {m\omega/{2πi\hbar\sin(ωt)}}$$ and $$S={m\omega[(x_0^2+x_1^2)\cos(\omega t)-2x_0x_1]}/{2\sin(\omega t)}.$$
Suppose there is a wavefunction $\psi(0)$. I want to calculate $$\int dx_0<x_1|U(0,0)|x_0><x_0|\psi(0)> ,$$ which is exact and gives $\psi(x_1,0)$.
Now if $<x_1|U(0,0)|x_0>$ were to be substituted with $Fe^{iS/\hbar}$, at $t=0$, both the exponent and the prefactor $F$ blow up, how could it converge to $\psi(x_1,0)$?