In lecture, my professor was trying to motivate why $$v_{group}=\frac{dw}{dk},$$ and in doing so he started by claiming that in general, we can express a wave (in its complex notation) as $$\epsilon(z,t)=\frac{1}{2\pi}\int_{-\infty}^{\infty}dk\int_{-\infty}^{\infty}dw \ \tilde{\epsilon}(k,w) \ e^{i(kz-wt)}.$$ Then, he went on to note that in a dispersive medium, $w(k)$ and wrote $$\epsilon(z,t)=\frac{1}{\sqrt{2\pi}}\int_{-\infty}^{\infty}dk \ \tilde{\epsilon}(k)\ e^{i(kz-w(k)t)}.$$
The rest involved taking Taylor series of $w$ and plugging in, which I understand. But I have two questions regarding the two integrals here.
- Here, we have adopted the convention that the inverse Fourier Transform gets the -$i$. So if we are doing two inverse transforms, why does the one with respect to $k$ have +$i$?
- How can you go from integral (1) to integral (2)? Yes, the integrand is all dependent on $k$ but how can you simply neglect the integral over $dw$?
- How does the $1/2\pi$ turn into a $1/\sqrt{2\pi}$?