I am trying to understand the topic in the title but I found some difficulties.
For example, I understand that $\left(\frac{1}{2},0\right)\otimes\left(\frac{1}{2},0\right)=\left(1,0\right)\oplus(0,0)$ which is a consequence of Clebsch-Gordan decomposition and the scalar representation is given by the antisymmetric product. The representation $(1, 0)$ can be represented by an antisymmetric, self-dual second rank tensor.
However, if I consider the following:$\left(\frac{1}{2},\frac{1}{2}\right)=\left(\frac{1}{2},0\right)\otimes\left(0,\frac{1}{2}\right)$, I don't understand how to decompose it. I know that represents a four vector field, with a temporal scalar component (spin 0) and vector component (spin 1) but I don't really understand why.