0
$\begingroup$

In Introduction to QFT by Peskin & Schroeder, p. 18, the authors have described infinitesimal change in field as a result of infinitesimal translation as

$$x^\mu\rightarrow x'^{\mu} =x^\mu-a^\mu \tag{2.16a}$$

Which then leads to (1st order variation in the parameter)

$$\phi(x)\rightarrow \phi(x+a)=\phi(x)+ a^\mu\partial_\mu\phi(x)\tag{2.16b}$$

My question is: Why is there a plus sign in second equation? Shouldn't the equation be

$$\phi(x)\rightarrow \phi(x-a)=\phi(x)- a^\mu\partial_\mu\phi(x)~ ?$$

$\endgroup$

2 Answers 2

5
$\begingroup$

You should be very very careful with field transformations. In a quantum field theory, only the field transforms -- coordinates DO NOT TRANSFORM, even for spacetime transformations. However, describing spacetime transformations as acting on the coordinates is often a useful tool to describe how the fields themselves transform. But you must always remember that at the end of the day, the action on the coordinates is a tool.

Every single symmetry transformation is described by a field transformation $$ \phi(x) \to \phi'(x) $$ To describe the symmetry, we must then explain what is $\phi'(x)$ in terms of $\phi(x)$. For instance, for a $U(1)$ gauge transformation, we write $$ \phi'(x) = e^{i Q \alpha(x)} \phi(x)~. $$

When the field transformation corresponds to a spacetime transformation, it is convenient to describe $\phi'(x')$ as opposed to $\phi'(x)$. For instance, for scalar operators, we write $$ \phi'(x') = \phi(x)~. $$ Note that this is just a tool for us to determine what is $\phi'(x)$. For instance, for translations, we have $x'=x-a$ so that $$ \phi'(x') = \phi'(x-a) = \phi(x) \quad \implies \quad \phi'(x) = \phi(x+a)~. $$ For Lorentz transformations, $x' = \Lambda x$ so that $$ \phi'(x') = \phi'(\Lambda x) = \phi(x) \quad \implies \quad \phi'(x) = \phi(\Lambda^{-1} x)~. $$

$\endgroup$
4
$\begingroup$

The author is using here an active transformation. Imagine a laboratory in which you transform the field by displacing, you'd get then a new field of the form $\phi_{\rm new}(x)$. There are two things here to notice

  1. The field is still being evaluated at the old coordinates

  2. If you transform the coordinates by a translation, then $\phi_{\rm new}(x_{\rm new}) = \phi(x)$, where

$$ x_{\rm new} = x-a $$

Or in the notation of the author

$$ \phi'(x - a) = \phi(x) $$

which is equivalent to

$$ \phi'(x) = \phi(x + a) \stackrel{\mathcal{O(a)}}{=} \phi(x) + a^\mu\partial_\mu\phi(x) $$

$\endgroup$
4
  • $\begingroup$ Does $x_{new}$ in $\phi_{new}(x_{new})$ represent new co-ordinate system or just new co-ordinate in same frame ? $\endgroup$
    – solphy101
    Sep 25, 2017 at 12:13
  • $\begingroup$ @solphy101 Yes, it is the new coordinate system $\endgroup$
    – caverac
    Sep 25, 2017 at 12:14
  • $\begingroup$ But Aren't we doing translation without changing co-ordinate system as you said in your first point? $\endgroup$
    – solphy101
    Sep 25, 2017 at 12:17
  • $\begingroup$ @solphy101 The equation $\phi_{\rm new}(x_{\rm new}) = \phi(x)$ is just saying that if you were to translate both the field and the coordinates, you'd get the same old field evaluated as the old coordinates $\endgroup$
    – caverac
    Sep 25, 2017 at 12:27

Your Answer

By clicking “Post Your Answer”, you agree to our terms of service and acknowledge you have read our privacy policy.

Not the answer you're looking for? Browse other questions tagged or ask your own question.